Aphorisms


There's nothing so bad, that adding government can't make it worse. -- The Immigrant

Government is not the solution to our problem; government is the problem. -- Ronald Reagan

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Read the next two together:

Every collectivist revolution rides in on a Trojan horse of 'Emergency'." -- Herbert Hoover

This is too good a crisis to waste. -- Rahm Emanuel

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Government is the great fiction through which everybody endeavors to live at the expense of everybody else. -- Fredric Bastiat, French Economist (30 June 1801 – 24 December 1850)

In general, the art of government consists of taking as much money as possible from one party of the citizens to give to another. -- François-Marie Arouet, a.k.a. Voltaire, (21 November 1694 – 30 May 1778)

The problem with socialism is that, sooner or later, you run out of other people's money. -- Margaret Thatcher

The inherent vice of capitalism is the unequal sharing of blessings; the inherent virtue of socialism is the equal sharing of miseries. -- Winston Churchill

Thursday, December 3, 2009

#44: Absolute Values (Again)

A couple of my friends have expressed discomfort with my insistence that morality is no more than preference. While I have addressed this issue already in prior posts, it seems important enough to take one more run at it. Let me approach it this time by way of a couple of purely logical points.

I

Many years ago, a philosopher named Antony Flew identified what he called a logical “misdemeanor.” He didn’t give the misdemeanor a name, but he described it in a couple of paragraphs. I have always felt that this misuse of logic deserved much greater emphasis than it has received, and for this reason I have given it a name of its own. I call it, for reasons that will become apparent, the “No-True-Briton-Move” (NTBM).

The NTBM capitalizes on a logical ambiguity present in ordinary language. The syntax of a declarative sentence does not by itself reveal whether the sentence is being intended as an empirical truth or as a stipulative definition. For example, the sentence “All Britons drink tea” could be an empirical generalization, on the one hand, or a stipulation with regard to the meaning of “Briton,” on the other. This ambiguity can be used in a deceptive manner, hence Flew’s referring to it as a “misdemeanor.” We can see the misdemeanor at play in the following elaboration.

Let us imagine an ambitious young “social scientist” who has designed a study on the tea-drinking habits of Britons (supported lavishly, of course, by the public purse!). His working hypothesis is: All Britons drink tea. His methodology is simple; he has defined “Briton” by the possession of a valid British passport and has accumulated a small army of undergraduates to travel out into Britain everywhere, even into the remotest regions, knocking on doors, and interviewing the inhabitants. “Do you possess a British passport,” they ask, and if the answer is yes, they follow up by asking whether the person drinks tea, and recording the response.

Imagine further that the study is completed, all the responses tabulated, compiled, and statistically analyzed, AND, to the delight of the International Tea Cartel, it turns out that all the interviewed Britons do drink tea! Our social scientist concludes that his empirical hypothesis has been confirmed, his promotion assured, his career guaranteed, and his grant acquiring ability significantly enhanced. He expects, not without reason, that he will soon be invited to pledge for the man-made global warming fraternity.

Imagine finally, however, that just as our ambitious social scientist is happily about to board his plane bound for home at Harvard, a lone figure comes running after him waving a valid British passport and screaming “I drink COFFEE!” At which point, our social scientist replies coolly, “Then, you’re no true Briton,” and flies off into the happy skies. This should be very puzzling, since an empirical generalization is in principle falsifiable by even one contrary case!

What happened? Our social scientist converted what was his hypothesis from an empirical generalization into a stipulation. This meant that he abandoned his initial experimental criterion for being British (the passport) and replaced it with drinking tea. He was able to do this, because the English sentence “All Britons drink tea” has no syntactical indicator showing which of the two it is intended to be (though the presence of the word "true" in his response should certainly raise a flag). His shift allowed him to ignore the contrary case and to make his generalization immune to any further evidence. This is cheating.

That’s our first logical point. I will apply it to “morality” in due time, but for the moment, please be patient as I deal with the second logical point.

II

This point is famously due to David Hume and in philspeak it is summarized as “Y’ can’t get an ought from an is.

The point is both terribly simple and terribly effective.

When we have an empirical claim, a claim about the actual world, that needs justification, we have two and only two expedients at our disposal: we can use deduction or we can use induction. That’s all there is. And, in addition, the best we can hope for from our justification is an increase in the probability of the claim in question.

But Hume adds a further clarification to the process of justification, namely, that the proposition being justified be of the same kind as the propositions doing the justifying.

The propositions doing the justifying are limited to being ones stating facts. Only facts can be used to justify. “Facts” are existing states of affairs. Thus, “Herbert (the Briton) drinks tea,” states a fact if and only if that sentence is true.

BUT, “Everyone ought to honor his mother and his father” does NOT state a fact about the world in any way at all!

This is signaled by the substitution of the word “ought” for the word “is.”

And what this means is that the justification of moral sentences is impossible.

Repeating why this is: 1) only facts can be used to justify, 2) the justified must be of the same kind as the justifying, and 3) moral sentences are not statements of fact. Therefore, 4) moral sentences cannot be justified.

To be completely fair, moral sentences can be justified by appeal to other moral sentences. The problem is that such justification can never be linked in any persuasive way to the actual world, the world of facts. In brief, such justification is ultimately either without any foundation or merely circular.

III

Now we can apply point one to morality.

Both in nature (the world of facts) and in morality (the world that “ought” to be) we find generalizations. In nature, our best generalizations are what we call “laws of nature” (of which the law of gravity is a paradigm example). In morality, we have our paradigm examples in the ten commandments (“Thou shallt not …”). Please note that the “shallt nots” are simply archaic versions of moral generalizations: “No one ought to do …”

Notice first that there seems to be a similarity in the ways we come to the generalizations in each area. In the case of nature, say gravity in particular, we measure the rate of fall in different places and under different conditions and then generalize the result: a freely falling body accelerates at a rate of 32’ per second for every second that it falls. This is called an inductive generalization, and the most important thing to notice is that such a generalization remains vulnerable to even a single counter-example. This means that all it would take to invalidate the law of gravity would be one single instance of a freely falling body accelerating at some speed other than 32’ per second.

Our moral generalizations also begin with observations. We note that most if not all people are against generalized coveting of neighbors’ wives; hence we generalize “Thou shallt not…thy neighbor’s wife.”

BUT, and this is a BIG but, there is a difference between the empirical and moral generalizations. This difference is that while the first are always still vulnerable to counter-example, the latter are treated as if they are not.

IF moral generalizations were treated like empirical generalizations, they should FALL as soon as one of us says, as Satan said to God, “thanks, but no thanks.” Instead of that, what happens is that the moral generalizations are treated as immune to counter-example. How is this done? Why is it done?

The how is easy to answer: the NTBM! A logical misdemeanor that capitalizes on the ambiguity of modal intent in the declarative sentence.

Why is it done? So that the generalization can be used to bludgeon people into what a majority thinks is the proper way to behave.

Once the NTBM has been implemented, generalizations that were empirical become what the moralists like to call “absolute.”

“Absolute” generalizations are the moral equivalent of stipulative generalizations: these generalizations cannot be rejected because we say they can’t!

IV

And so, my friends, this is why there are no “absolute” moral principles, rules, values, commandments, etc..

Addendum

Very briefly, just a review of why God’s existing would make no difference to the moral picture at all.

If, indeed, God did exist, then this would be no more than one more fact about the world. If God were a natural entity, then it would be an additional natural fact; if God were a supernatural entity, then it would be a supernatural fact. Each of these possibilities carries with it insurmountable difficulties, in particular that I doubt any sense can be made of the notion of a “fact” outside of nature.

All the terrible conceptual difficulties in these notions aside, however, this one final point suffices: as long as we are considered free, God’s existence would be irrelevant to our moral issues and dilemmas.

The reason is that we can freely choose to do what God and others consider evil. When we do so, God’s only recourse is power. God can punish us. But this just makes God a very powerful, perhaps infinitely powerful, enemy of the free man.

This surely cannot be what the devout have in mind, eh?

6 comments:

  1. Oh Simplicius,

    You drive a very hard bargain; and your arguments, as usual are quite convincing. Allow me to offer some thoughts:

    1) You're entirely right in your analogy to the NTBM, insofar as that morality cannot be justified by appeal to empirical or rational generalizations. This is a big problem that many Leftists have, since many believe that everything can be rationalized, including morality. You are entirely right that all of this comes from our preferences and cannot be rationally induced (or deduced for that matter). But once again, I think practically speaking, while no logical causal connections can be made, there are certainly things that are objectively wrong.

    The example of the Briton who drinks coffee is interesting. It invalidates the proposition "All Britons drink tea", but surely it does not invalidate the proposition that "Britons drink tea". Perhaps Nigel is still a "true Briton", but perhaps also we can say that he is an "unusual" Briton. If instead of coffee, he prefers drinking feces, then we would happily conclude that Nigel is missing some marbles. So while objective morality may not be true in the very literal sense, it may be true in the practical sense. If the majority believe that murder is wrong, and that humans are independent and therefore ought to be free, what is wrong with creating a standard by which all must follow and proselytizing one's beliefs on others? What is wrong with naming something called Natural Rights, any more than naming a colour called Blue? Calling violators of the former immoral, and violators of the latter blind? Why must we call something objective only when it satisfies logical rules? Is that not your own preference for a logical justification?

    2. Just as Hume believes that an Is can't lead to an Ought, so too does he believe that a Perceive often if not always can't lead to an Is (PUN). But Hume does not tell us to be empirical skeptics. There is utility, he says, in believing that our senses are not deceiving us. Why then should we be moral skeptics? True, we cannot prove the existence of a moral FACT in nature, I admit that. But there seems to be utility in behaving as if they do exist in some form or another. In other words, whether Hume would phrase it this way or not (probably not since he was atheist) any belief, whether empirical or moral, requires an act of faith.

    3) And this brings me to God. You would argue that even if we do make this leap of faith, there is no corresponding fact or state of affairs that could eventually vindicate or invalidate the leap. If I see a car coming at me, and take a leap of faith that my senses are deceiving me, chances are, I will get smashed by a car and die. But according to your argument, if I take the leap of faith and believe in an objective morality based on God, there are no "moral properties" to either confirm or deny this leap.

    But I would argue that you can't make that assumption, especially if you're willing to concede that God may exist. Because once you get into that game, you open up a new can of worms, because you allow for metaphysical facts/properties. There very well may be something independent, but perhaps affiliated with God (like a subsidiary corporation) that is called the Good. And while we are free to follow or reject the Good, its objective reality remains present. I don't pretend to know that there is such a thing, but it is not logically impossible.


    A.G.

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  2. It seams to me that Asher's statement is not incongruent with Schachter's orgasmic logical conclusions. In less of course Asher really wants to challenge the premiss that only facts can be used to justify. If we deny this premiss, which is the only valid challenge in my mind, then you are giving up the concept of justification all together. What is the premiss that replaces only facts can be used to justify. Is it, "facts and things that are generally agreed upon can be used as justification. to justify. This is a significant lowering of the bar for justification. all of a sudden it is now possible to get to a point at which the common belief in anthropomorphic global warming justifies the phenomena despite the absence of supportive facts. I don't like lowering the bar in this way when it comes to issues of truth. If time proves this theory to be wrong you would still have to say that they were justified in believing in anthropomorphic global warming because there was common belief.

    Or maybe we could replace the premiss only facts can be used to justify with "only facts and things that would be facts if there were not weirdo exceptions can be used as justification." But what happens when the apple that falls from the tree and pauses in mid air comes around. Can it just be dismissed as a weirdo and gravity remain the justifiable explanation of the way objects fall. What happens when there is a few more weirdos. How long do we hold onto the premiss for until the weirdos are not weird any more.

    I say keep justification separate from action and belief. Asher's explanation of moral principal fits with the way the world works. If you want to judge Tom for eating poo instead of drinking tea I will get behind you to stop the development of more open poo eaters that may ruin the values of our tea drinking children. Why does justification have to be a part of this process. Let the strong survive.

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  3. Jeffrey Shaw,

    As a man who strives to be "of the law" someday soon, I of course believe wholeheartedly in the notion that justification requires the presence of facts. My argument is not that objective morality can be justified (and I'm sorry if I made it seem that I was arguing this), but rather than objective morality does not require justification per se. It simply requires faith.

    For me, my biggest problem with the last Part of Simplicius's argument is that it seems to suggest that objective morality is logically IMPOSSIBLE (rather than saying, it cannot be logically demonstrated). To make this jump, it seems, you essentially have to prove a negative. You have to claim that it is logically impossible for there to exist a "metaphysical fact", if you will, called "The Good" (or something of that nature). Now certainly, I have no evidence that there is a Good, and it certainly cannot be demonstrated by appeal to logic. But just as logic is not a friend of the Good, so too is logic not inherently against it, just as it is not inherently against the existence of God.

    Therefore, as long as we can concede that objective morality is something whose existence is not logically impossible (such as something both existing and not existing at the same time), then there is no reason why demonstrating its absence from the NATURAL world should prove fatal.

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  4. "Orgasmic," Jeff??? Yes, there are *some* conclusions that are indeed "orgasmic," but not, I think, the ones that I was drawing!

    I do think, however, that you are otherwise on the right track.

    A.G., I think you are playing a bit fast and loose with the word "objective." We can certainly consider it an "objective" fact that so-and-so-many people have this or that moral attitude. BUT the attitude that they express with their moral utterances are not themselves statements of objective fact. I would even argue that while they may resemble declarative sentences, this is only a matter of superficial form. In fact, I would argue, sentences like "This is morally wrong" or "She ought not to have done that" are not capable of having truth value at all. What these people utter is more akin to "Ow," when someone is hurt (though perhaps a bit more complicated than that).
    Further, A.G., I regret that I can't even join you on your Kantian mission of claiming that the existence of "God, Freedom, and Immortality" still remains possible. It was this that Kant hoped to establish, but, in my view, he failed; failed gloriously, but failed nonetheless.
    I would maintain that no coherent notion of a "supernatural fact" can be defended (where a "fact" necessarily involves the existence of something, whether "object" or "state of affairs").
    I'm afraid that I will have to side with the "orgasmic" Jeff on this one.

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  6. Well, as Orgasmic Jeff pointed out, I don't think our positions are as far apart as you make them to be. Especially if we ignore the supernatural for the moment. I think then it becomes very much a semantic debate, where you would not want to use the word objective since the "truth" flows from our preferences, whereas I am fine using that word (and maybe I am taking too many liberties in doing so). But in either case, both you and I, I think, would be happy to punish murderers and would be steadfast in declaring what our "rights" are when a tyrannical leaders tries to take them away. To say they are my "natural rights" is perhaps nothing more than to say "I really truly believe that they are necessary for my very being and long term happiness". But really, does it matter practically? Perhaps I cannot rationally infer an "ought", but I can infer generalizations about certain human preferences, just as I can about human sense perception.

    I think you're most worried about the Left hijacking the term "rights" and using it for their own purposes. Of course this happens. But just as often, and perhaps more often, they hijack populist rage. So in other words, appealing to something objectively true - as America's Founders did - is probably safer than appealing to emotional persuasion.

    And speaking of the Founders, we all agree, I think, that America's Founders were among the smartest and wisest men in history. What they accomplished may very well may have been the pinnacle of human achievement. Now someone could have come up to Madison and Hamilton and tapped them on the shoulder and said "You know gentleman, there really are no natural rights at all, and certainly not any that have been given to us by a "Creator". These "blessings of liberty" that you believe government exists to secure - why they're just your subjective bourgeois preferences." And, of course, Madison could have said to this man, "So what?" and perhaps added something like "Do you know who I am???". But if he wanted to justify his position on some appeal to common sense, he could have also said "Every idiot knows that Men want to be free. And this government structure is empirically the best way to accomplish it. Don't believe me? Stick around, the proof is in the pudding." And of course, as the years and centuries progressed, more and more people moved to America, not to Saudi Arabia. Sure, this only means that more people PREFERRED America, it does not point to any objective fact. But then again, more people prefer listening to Mozart or the Beatles than listening to nails on a chalkboard. The reason is that the former is more pleasurable to the average human ear and stimulates the brain on numerous levels.

    This doesn't mean that many if not most things aren't in the realm of opinion - but when the consensus approaches such a high level, I think it's fair to call something objective in the practical sense.

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